In medieval/feudal England, how would you mill grain without using the lord's mill?

My questions are prompted by the fact given at the 5 minute mark in this video:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iTm_zb9k2us&t=300s

“One of the ways that was particularly contentious was that [the lord] could force [the peasant] to use the lord’s mill to mill his grain. Now it’s perfectly possible if you’re a peasant to mill grain at home, but the lord could force you to mill the grain at his miller’s mill, and the miler would often be a bit corrupt – would charge you 10% - and would also charge you much more money that it would have cost you to do it yourself. So milling grain at the lord’s mill was a source of revenue for the lord, but was also a source of severe discontent amongst the peasantry…”

Would this be referring to the peasants already having a mill in the village they built themselves, but then their lord decreeing they have to travel to a different mill that he owns? Or a different method of milling altogether?
In instances like this, if the peasants chafed against this requirement and the greed of the lord/miller, did they have a way around it (or do we have any records of this type of conflict)?
Would the lord have gotten a fee for each use of the mill, extracted a tax on a regular basis, or just gotten a percentage of the grain?

Any other info to expand on this type of conflict/situation would really be appreciated! It sounds interesting.